MCQ Biology - Learning Biology through MCQs

Biology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Different Competitive Exams

Multiple Choice Questions on PCR Types

PCR types
1. Which of the following PCR technique is best suited for detection of point mutation in DNA?
a) RT PCR
b) PCR
c) Allele specific PCR
d) Anchored PCR

2. The PCR technique used to preferentially amplify only one strand of the target DNA by using unequal primer concentration is   
a) qPCR
b) Asymmetric PCR
c) Anchored PCR
d)  Nested PCR

3. The PCR technique widely used in bacterial genomic studies for screening of plasmid inserts is
a) Anchored PCR
b) Colony PCR
c) qPCR
d) pPCR

4. This PCR variant uses degenerate primers to amplify unknown sequences of DNA, related to a known DNA sequence is
a) Degenerate PCR
b) Multiplex PCR
c) Hotstart PCR
d) Inverse PCR

5. If the sequence of only one strand is known for primer synthesis, the best PCR variant that allows amplification of DNA with only one known sequence is
a) Hotstart PCR
b) Inverse PCR
c) Multiplex PCR
d) Nested PCR

6. The most efficient PCR technique that uses primer mix to detect deletions or duplications in a large gene is  
a) Anchored PCR
b) Nested PCR
c) Miniprimer PCR
d) Multiplex PCR

7. The PCR technique designed to minimize amplification of non-specific PCR products by using 2 primer sets is
a) Multiplex PCR
b) Mini primer PCR
c) Nested PCR
d) q PCR
8. The PCR variant designed for the study of RNA expression level is  
a) Reverse transcriptase or RT PCR
b) q PCR
c) Anchored PCR
d)  Traditional PCR

9. The following PCR technique allows measuring the DNA amplification at each cycle of PCR contrary to end point detection in traditional PCR
a) q PCR or Quantitative PCR
b) Reverse transcriptase or RT PCR
c) Asymmetric PCR
d) touchdown PCR

10. The PCR procedure, where Taq polymerase is added after the rest of the PCR components are heated to the DNA melting temperature, so as to avoid non-specific amplification at lower temperatures is
a) Asymmetric PCR
b) Hotstart PCR
c) Multiplex PCR
d) Nested PCR
Learn more:
Answers:
1. c) Allele specific PCR
2. b) Asymmetric PCR
3. b) Colony PCR
4 . a) Degenerate PCR
5. b) Inverse PCR
6. d) Multiplex PCR
7. c) Nested PCR
8. a) Reverse transcriptase or RT PCR
9. a) q PCR or Quantitative PCR
10. b) Hotstart PCR
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MCQ on Horticulture Vegetable Science

1. French bean is a native of
a) Mediterranean region
b) Asia
c) South and Central America
d) None of the above
2. Fruits of vegetable Marrow are ready for first picking after

a) 40-50 days
b) 60-80 days
c) 80-100 days
d) None of the above
3. Garden beet belong to the genus
a) Beta
b) Brassica
c) Raphanus
d) None of these
4. Purple Vienna is --- variety of knol khol


a) early
b) mid
c) late
d) all season
5. Fungicide used for controlling powdery mildew disease of pea is
a) captan
b) indofil M-45
c) karathane
d) none of these
6. Puffy fruit in tomato is caused by
a) Viral attack
b) Bacterial attack
c) Physiological disorder
d) None of these
7. Fruits of wild forms of bottle guard are bitter in taste due to
cucurbitacin
a) solanin
b) tomatine
c) cucurbitacin
d) None of these
8. Fruit of okra is rendered unmarketable due to attack of
a) mites
b) painted bug
c) aphids
d) none of these
9. Powdery mildew disease is a serious problem of which of the following crops
a) capsicum
b) okra
c) pea
d) cucurbits
10. Fruit setting in Brinjal is usually in the flower having
a) medium style
b) short style
c) long and medium style
d) short and medium style
Answers
1. c) South and Central America
2. b) 60-80 days 
3. a) Beta
4. c) late 
5. c) karathane
6. c) Physiological disorder
7. c) cucurbitacin
8. b) painted bug
9. d) cucurbits
10. c) long and medium style
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Multiple Choice Questions on Nitrogen Cycle

1. Which of the following is correct regarding Nitrogen cycle?
Nitrogen cycle

a) N2 cycle is a sedimentary cycle
b) N is the most abundant nutrient for plants 
c) The major reservoir of Nitrogen is atmosphere
d) All of these

2. Nitrogen fixation is the  
a) Conversion of N2 to NO3- and NH3
b) Conversion of N2 to N
c) Conversion of N2 to urea
d)  All of the above

3. Nitrogen accounts nearly 79% of the air. Still Nitrogen is the most limiting nutrient for plant growth because
a) N2 cannot be directly utilized by plants
b) High energy is required to break triple bond
c) Nitrogen is almost an inert gas as N involved reaction requires extreme conditions such as high temperature
d) All of the above

4. Majority of nitrogen fixation occurs by
a) Biological nitrogen fixing organisms
b) Lightning
c) volcanic eruptions
d) Haber–Bosch process

5. Biological nitrogen fixation is the conversion of
a) Conversion of N2 to NO3- and NH3
b) Conversion of N2 to N
c) Conversion of N2 to urea
d) Conversion of N2 to NH3

6. Which of the following is a symbiotic Nitrogen fixing microorganism?
a) Azospirillum
b) Rhizobium
c) Clostridium
d) Nitrococcus

7. The major enzymes involved in biological Nitrogen fixation are
a) nitrogenase and hexokinase
b) nitrogenase and hydrogenase
c) nitrogenase and hydrolyase
d) nitrogenase and peptidase

8. Ammonification is the process of
a) Formation of ammonia from nitrogen by nitrogen fixers
b) Formation of ammonia from amino acids by decomposers
c) Formation of ammonia from nitrates by nitrogen fixers
d)  Formation of ammonia from nitrates by decomposers

9. The conversion of Ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrates (NO3-)  is called
a) Nitrification
b) ammonification
c) Assimilation
d) denitrification

10. The process that convert nitrates (NO3-) back to nitrogen gas (N2) there by  replenishing N2 in the atmosphere is called
a) Nitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Deamination
d) Nitrogen fixation
Learn more:
Answers:
1. c) The major reservoir of Nitrogen is atmosphere
2. a) conversion of N2 to NO3- and NH3
3. d) All of the above
4 . a) Biological nitrogen fixing organisms
5. d) conversion of N2 to NH3
6. b) Rhizobium
7. b) nitrogenase and hydrogenase
8. b) formation of ammonia from amino acids by decomposers
9. a) nitrification
10. b) denitrification
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Multiple Choice Questions on Electrophoresis

1. The technique electrophoresis, for the separation of charged molecules was developed by  
a) Tswett
b) Svedberg
c) Tiselius
d) Sanger

2. In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards
a) cathode or positive electrode
b) anode or negative electrode
c) cathode or negative electrode
d) anode or positive electrode

3. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on
a) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules
b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules
c)  shape and size of the molecule
d) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules

4. Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?
a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the current
b) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current
c) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium
d) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds

5. Electrophoresis cell or electrophoresis apparatus consists of

a) power pack and electrophoresis unit
b) Elctrophoresis unit and DNA separator
c) buffer chamber and Elctrophoresis unit
d) Gel, buffer chamber and power pack

6. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is
a) Agar
b) Polyacrylamide
c) Agarose
d) All of the above

7. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments
a) AGE
b) PAGE
c) PFGE
d) SDS-PAGE

8. What is the role of SDS in SDS-PAGE?
a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge
b) imparting overall negative charge to the protein
c) imparting equal mass to all proteins
d)  protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge

9. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on
a) molecular weight
b) shape
c) charge
d) all of the above

10. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is
a) AGE
b) PFGE
c) 2D-PAGE
d) SDS-PAGE
*AGE: Agarose Gel Electrophoresis, PAGE: Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis, PFGE: Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis, SDS: sodium dodecyl sulphate
Learn more: 
Answers:
1. c) Tiselius  
2. d) anode or positive electrode
3. b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules
4.  a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to current
5. a) power pack and electrophoresis unit
6. c) Agarose
7. c) PFGE
8. a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge
9. a) molecular weight
10. c) 2D-PAGE
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MCQ on Sexual Reproduction in Angiosperms (Flowering Plants)

    1.  Testa of a seed is produced from
a) hilum
b) ovary wall
c) funicle
d) outer integument of ovule

2. Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by
a) one polar nuclei and one male gamete
b) two polar nuclei and one male gamete
c) two polar nuclei and two male gamete
d) ovum and male gamete

3. One advantage of cleistogamy is
a) it leads to the greater genetic diversity
b) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
c) seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
d) each visit of a pollinator result in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

4. Pollen grains are shed at which stage?
a)  Two celled
b) Three celled
c) Single celled
d) Usually at two celled, but sometimes three celled

5. Filiform apparatus is characteristic of
a) egg
b) synergids
c) antipodal cells
d) anther wall

6. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
a) hemitropous
b) anatropous
c) orthrotropous
d) campylotrophous

7. The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises
a) an egg cell and two antipodals
b) an egg cell and the central cell
c) an egg cell and the two polar nuclei
d) an egg cell and two synergids

8. Fusion of male gamete with polar nuclei of embryosac is known as
a) Pollination
b) embrogeny
c) triple fusion
d) double fertilization

9. Study the following statements and select the correct one.
A. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains
B. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle
C. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination occurs by water.
D. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.
a) A and b are correct but C and D are incorrect
b) A, B and D are correct but C is incorrect
c) B, C and D are correct but A is incorrect
d) A and D are correct but B and C are incorrect

10. The entry of pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle is called

a) mesogamy
b)anisogamy
c) porogamy
d) chalazogamy
Learn more:
Answers
1. d) outer integument of ovule
2. b) two polar nuclei and one male gamete
3. b) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
4. d) Usually at two celled, but sometimes three celled
5.  b) synergids
6. a) hemitropous
7. d) an egg cell and two synergids
8. c) triple fusion
9. b) A, B and D are correct but C is incorrect
10. c) porogamy
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Multiple Choice on Human Genome Project (HGP)

1. The Human Genome Project was initiated by
a) NIH and DOE
b) NIH and EBI
c) NIH and DDBJ
d) DOE and DDBJ
2. The prime objective of HGP was
a) To find out the exact functions of proteins in humans
b) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 23 chromosomes
c) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 24 chromosomes
d) To find out the active genes in human genome
3. HGP was also focused on identifying
multiple choice on Human genome project
a) SNPs
b) VNTRs
c) Minisatellites
d) Junk DNA
4. At the initial stage of HGP, the estimated time and budget was
a) 30 years, $100 billion
b) 15 years and $ 15 billion
c) 10 years and $ 6 billion
d) 15years and $ 3 billion
5. The private company involved in Human genome sequencing in parallel with HGP was
a) Roche
b) Gilead
c) Celera
d) Genentech
6. According to HGP, human genome consists of approximately
a) 100000 genes
b) 50000 genes
c) 30000 genes
d) 20000 genes
7. The first draft of HGP was published in 2001 in the journal
a) ‘Science’
b)’ Cell’
c) ‘Nature’
d) ‘Plos Biology
8. Which of the following vectors are widely used in HGP?
a) plasmid and cosmid
b) lambda phage and M13 vectors
c) phagemid and shuttle vectors
d) BAC and YAC
9. According to HGP, genetic similarity between all humans is
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 99.9%
d) 99.5%
10. The largest gene in humans is
a) titin
b) dystrophin
c) Insulin
d) Phosphofructokinase
Learn more
·         Biotechnology Practice Test
Answers
1.  a) NIH and DOE
2. c) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 24 chromosomes
3. a) SNPs
4. d) 15years and $ 3 billion
5. c) Celera
6. d) 20000 genes
7. c) ‘Nature’
8. d) BAC and YAC
9. c) 99.9%
10. b) dystrophin
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MCQ on Discoveries in Molecular Biology

1. Who is the one awarded with Nobel Prize for contribution towards elucidation of 3D structure of DNA along with Watson and Crick?
Watson and Crick
a) Rosalind Franklin
b) Maurice Wilkins 
c) Linus Pauling
d) Temin

2. Andrew Z Fire and Craig C Mello got Nobel Prize in medicine for the discovery of  
a) Split genes
b) Transposons
c) Ribozymes
d)  RNA interference mechanism

3. Stanley Prusiner, Nobel winner of 1997 discovered bizarre infectious protein particle called as
a) Prions
b) Viroids
c) Virusoids
d) Proteomes

4. The key enzyme that helped Kary Mullis in the invention of PCR was
a) Ligase
b) Taq Polymersae
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) Vent polymerase

5. “All enzymes are proteins” this was the concept before the discovery of ribozymes or catalytic RNAs by
a) Roberts and Sharp
b) Cech and Altman
c) Alwin and Towbin
d)  Sanger

6. Bacterial conjugation was discovered by  
a) Beadle and Tatum
b) Meselson and Stahl
c) Lederberg and Tatum
d) Griffith

7. The first confirmation regarding the status of DNA as genetic material was given by the work of Avery, Macleod and McCarty on
a) E.coli
b) Diplococcus pneumoniae
c) Klebsiella
d) T2 phage

8. DNA finger printing using β KM-DNA probe was developed by 
a) Alec Jeffrey
b) Kary Mullis
c) Watson
d)  Lalji Singh

9. ‘Central dogma of Biology’ was put forward by
a) Watson
b) Crick
c) Temin
d) Khorana

10. The discovery of restriction enzyme actually paved way towards the development of modern biotechnology or rDNA technology. The discoverers are
a) Kary Mullis and Mc Clintock
b) Arber, Nathans and Smith
c) Milstein and Saiki
d) Sanger, Maxam and Gilbert

Answers:
1. b) Maurice Wilkins 
2. d)  RNA interference mechanism
3. a) Prions
4 . b) Taq Polymersae
5. b) Cech and Altman
6. c) Lederberg and Tatum
7. b) Diplococcus pneumoniae
8. d)  Lalji Singh
9. b) Crick
10. b) Arber, Nathans and Smith
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Multiple choice questions on Genomics

MCQ on Genomics

1. Which of the following is correct regarding genomics?
a) It include mapping of genome
b) It include genome sequencing 
c) It include genome analysis
d) All of these

2. Genomics is the study of genomes. Genome refers to the
a) DNA of an organism
b) total DNA and RNA of an organism
c) entire genes of an organism
d)  total DNA, RNA and cDNA of an organism

3. The term genomics was coined by
a) Thomas Cech
b) T.H Morgan
c) Thomas Roder
d) Craig Venter

4. The first completed genome sequencing project is of
a) E.coli
b) Haemophilus influezae
c) ØX174
d) Drosophila melanogaster

5. International Human Genome project was initiated by
a) National Institute of Health (NIH)
b) Celera genomics
c) US Department of Energy (DoE)
d)  NOH and US DoE

6. DNA sequencing followed by genome annotation are steps of
a) Comparative genomics
b) Structural genomics
c) Functional genomics
d) transcriptomics

7. All are genome sequencing strategies except
a) Edman degradation method
b) short gun library
c) Whole genome short gun sequencing
d) Directed gene sequencing

8. Small cDNA sequence that represents a unique segment of an active gene is called  
a) SNPs
b) SnRNAs
c) ESTs
d)  contigs
9. Which of the following is not a gene expression database?
a) GenBank
b) Flyview
c) SeedGenes
d) BodyMap

10. Variation between individuals due to single base changes is called as
a) ESTs
b) contigs
c) SNPs
d) Transversion

Learn more:
Answers:
1. d) All of these
2. c) entire genes of an organism
3. c) Thomas Roder
4 . c) ØX174
5. d)  NOH and US DoE
6. b) Structural genomics
7. a) Edman degradation method
8. c) ESTs*
9. a) GenBank
10. c) SNPs*
SNP: Single Nucleotide Polymorphism, EST: Expressed sequence tags
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