MCQ Biology - Learning Biology through MCQs

Biology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Different Competitive Exams

Multiple Choice Questions on Human Genetic Disorders

1. Down’s syndrome is characterised by
down syndrome karyotype
a) 19 trisomy
b) 21 trisomy
c) only one X chromosome
d) two X and one Y chromosome

2. Which of the following is known as Royal disease?
a) Sickle cell anaemia
b) Haemophilia
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d)  Colour blindness

3Patau’s syndrome occurs due to
a) trisomy of 13th chromosome
b) trisomy of 18th chromosome
c) trisomy of 21st chromosome
d)  trisomy of 22nd chromosome

4. The most important example of point mutation is found in a disease called?
a) Thalassemia
b) Night blindness
c) Sickle cell anaemia
d)  Down’s syndrome

5. The syndrome in which individual somatic cell contains three sex chromosome XXX is called
a) Down’s syndrome
b) Super female
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
 
6. Identify a Mendelian disorder from the following
a) Down’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Phenylketonuria

7. A man has enlarged breasts, spare hair on body and sex complement as XXY. He suffers from
a) Down’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Edward’s syndrome

8. In a family, father is having a disease and mother is normal. The disease is inherited to only daughters and not to the sons. What type of disease is this?
a) Sex linked dominant
b) Sex linked recessive
c) Autosomal dominant
d) Autosomal recessive

9. In man, which of the following genotypes and phenotypes may be the correct result of aneuploidy in sex chromosomes?
a) 22 pairs + Y females
b) 22 pairs + XX females
c) 22 pairs + XXY males
d) 22 pairs + XXXY females

10. A woman with one gene for haemophilia and one gene for color blindness on one of the X chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be?
a) Haemophilic and colour blind daughters
b) All sons and daughters are haemophilic and colour blind
c) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
d)  50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% colour blind daughters
Learn more:
Answers:
1. b) 21 trisomy
2. b) Haemophilia
3. a) trisomy of 13th chromosome
4. c) Sickle cell anaemia
5. b) Super female
6. d) Phenylketonuria
7. b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
8. a) Sex linked dominant
9. c) 22 pairs + XXY males
10. c) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
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Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases

1. Aedes aegypti is a vector for
a) Yellow fever
b) Dengue fever
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) Both dengue and yellow fever

2. Which of the following is a communicable disease?
a) Diabetes
b) diptheria
c) Hypertension
d)  Kwashiorkor

HUMAN dISEASES
3. Congenital diseases are
a) Disease present at birth
b) Spread from one individual to another
c) Occur during life
d)  Deficiency diseases

4. Which of the following diseases spreads through respiratory route?
a) Influenza
b) Mumps
c) Measles
d)  all of above

5. Which of the following viruses causes common cold?
a) Rhino virus
b) T4 virus
c) MSZ virus
d) simian virus 40

6. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
a) Rabies, mumps
b) AIDS, Syphilis
c) Typhoid, Tetanus
d)  Cholera, Tuberculosis

7. If a person shows production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of
a) Tetanus
b) Typhoid
c) Malaria
d)  Measles

8. Fever, slow pulse, abdominal tenderness, delirium and rose coloured rash indicate the disease?
a) Chicken box
b) Measles
c) Tetanus
d)  Chicken pox

9. Mumps is an infection of
a) Parotid gland
b) submandibular gland
c) Sublingual gland
d)  submaxillary land

10. Communicability of disease depends upon the availability of
a) Pathogen
b) Healthy person
c) Parasite
d)  Susceptible person
Learn more:
Answers
1. d) Both dengue and yellow fever
2. b) diptheria
3. a) Disease present at birth
4. d)  all of above
5. a) Rhino virus
6. a) Rabies, mumps
7. d)  Measles
8. b) Measles
9. a) Parotid gland
10. d)  Susceptible person
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Multiple Choice Questions on Drug Abuse

1. Synthetic drugs structurally related to adrenaline are
a) hallucingens
b) analgesics
c) amphetamines
d)  barbiturates
Drug abuse
2. Roots of which of the following species contain valuable alkaloids that are useful in medicine?
a) Rauwolfia serpentina
b) Emblica officinalis
c) Helianthus annus
d)  all of theses

3. Sedative differ from tranquilizers in
a) Sedative are strong tranquilizers
b) Sedative cause addiction while tranquilizers do not produce such an effect.
c) Sedative depress brain activity while tranquiller active brain functioning
d)  all of the above

4. Methadone is used for
a) narcortic
b) Relieving chronic pain
c) deaddiction of morphine and heroin
d)  all of the above

5. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness and relaxation?
a) morphine
b) valium
c) amphetamines
d)  hashish

6. Use of Cannabis products results in
a) Alteration in perception, thoughts and feelings
b) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness
c) Stimulation of nervous system, increased alertness and activity
d)  suppressed brain function and relief in pain

7. Caffeine can be obtained from
a) Thea sinesis
b) Coffea arabica
c) Theobroma cacao
d)  all of these

8. A person is drug addict because of
a) Habit of drug taking
b) Irresistible urge to take the drug and increase the dose.
c) Irritable behaviour, uncoordinated actions and emotional detachment.
d)  None of these

9. The effect of opiates is
a) Reduction in anxiety and tension
b) Lowering of blood pressure and breathing rate
c) Numbing of pain causing drowsiness, lethargy and feeling of well being
d)  none of the above

10. Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants. Barbiturates are
a) CNS stimulants
b) CNS depressants
c) no effect on CNS
d)  hallucinogenic
Learn more:
Answers
1. c) amphetamines
2. d)  Rauwolfia serpentina
3. d)  all of the above
4. d)  all of the above
5. b) valium
6. a) Alteration in perception, thoughts and feelings
7. d)  all of these
8. b) Irresistible urge to take the drug and increase the dose.
9. d)  none of the above
10. b) CNS depressants
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Multiple Choice Questions on Haematopoietic System

1. The life span of thrombocytes is
a) 4 to 5 weeks
b) 3 to 7 weeks
c) 3 to 7 days
d)  None of these

2. The most abundant granulocytes in human blood is
a) neutrophils
b) monocytes
c) basophils
d)  eosinophils

3. Which of the following types of leukocytes are characterised by the presence of S shaped nucleus?
a) eosinophil
b) basophil
c) monocyte
d)  neutrophil

4. The leukocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?
Erythrocytes and Leukocytes
a) neutrophil
b) basophil
c) monocyte
d)  eosinophil

5. Which statement is true for WBC?
a) produced in thymus
b) non nucleated
c) in deficiency cancer is caused
d)  can squeeze through blood capillaries

6. Erythropoietin is formed in
a) kidney
b) spleen
c) red bone marrow
d)  liver

7. Megakaryocytes give rise to
a) erythrocytes
b) agranulocytes
c) granulocytes
d)  thrombocytes

8. The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes place in
a) liver and spleen
b) red bone marrow
c) blood plasma
d)  all of these

9. In a healthy adult man, the commonest and smallest type of leukocytes are
a) lymphocytes
b) basophils
c) eosinophils
d)  all of these

10. The production of red blood cells in the bone marrow is regulated by
a) renin
b) rennin
c) erythropoietin
d) calcium

Learn more:
Answers:
1. c) 3 to 7 days
2. a) neutrophils
3. b) basophil
4. a) neutrophil
5. d)  can squeeze through blood capillaries
6. a) kidney
7. d)  thrombocytes
8. a) liver and spleen
9. a) lymphocytes
10. c) erythropoietin
Read More

Multiple Choice Questions on Krebs Cycle or Citric Acid Cycle

1. In Kreb’s cycle
a) Energy is stored in the form of ATP
b) Energy is stored in the form of ADP
c) Energy is liberated from ADP
d)  Energy is liberated from ATP

2. In Kreb’s cycle , a six carbon compound is formed by the combination of Acetyl CoA and
a) Citric acid
b) malic acid
c) oxaloacetic acid
d)  succinic acid

3. During one Kreb’s cycle number of carbon dioxide (CO2), molecules released is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d)  4

4. Most enzymes that take part in Kreb’s cycle are located in
a) cytoplasm
b) mitochondrial matrix
c) plasma membrane
d)  inner mitochondrial membrane

5. In Kreb’s cycle GTP is formed in
citric acid cycle
a) Oxidative phosphorylation
b) Substrate level phosphorylation
c) Cyclic photophosphorylation
d)  Non cyclic photophosphorylation

6. Enzymes of TCA cycle or Kreb’s cycle are located in the matrix of mitochondria except one which is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Name the enzyme
a) citrate synthase
b) succinate dehydrogenase
c) malate dehydrogenase
d)  α ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

7. In Kreb’s cycle, the hydrogen of malate is accepted by
a) FMN
b) FAD
c) NAD
d)  CoA

8. The TCA cycle is an oxidative pathway requiring oxygen for operation. The enzyme which consumes oxygen during the operation of the cycle is
a) isocitrate dehydrogenase
b) α ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c) acotinase
d)  none of the above

9. Last electron acceptor in respiration is
a) O2
b) CO2
c) H2
d)  NADH

10. Which is the total yield of ATP in TCA cycle in eukaryotic cells?
a) 30
b) 34
c) 36
d)  38

Learn more:
Answers:
1. a) Energy is stored in the form of ATP
2. c) oxaloacetic acid
3. b) 2
4. b) mitochondrial matrix
5. b) Substrate level phosphorylation
6. b) succinate dehydrogenase
7. c) NAD
8. d) none of the above
9. c) H2
10. a) 30
Read More

Multiple Choice Questions on Sequence Alignment

1. The procedure of aligning two sequences by searching for patterns that is in the same order in the sequences
sequence alignment
a) sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) multiple sequence alignment
d) all of these

2. Alignment method suitable for aligning closely related sequence is
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment

3. The alignment procedure that tries to align the entire sequence is
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment

4. The alignment method suitable for finding out conserved patterns in DNA or protein sequences is
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment

5. The procedure of aligning many sequences simultaneously is called
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment

6. Sequence alignment helps scientists
a) to trace out evolutionary relationships
b) to infer the functions of newly synthesized genes
c) to predict new members of gene families
d) all of these

7. The alignment procedure that tries to align regions with high level of matches without considering the alignment of rest of the sequences is
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment

8. All are sequence alignment tools except
a) Rasmol
b) BLAST
c) FASTA
d) Clustal W

9. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool provided by NCBI
a) Chime
b) BLAST
c) FASTA
d) Clustal W

10. Which of the following is a multiple sequence alignment tool?
a) Clustal W
b) Chime
c) Dismol
d) PDB
Learn more:
Answers
1. b) pair wise alignment
2. c) global alignment
3. c) global alignment
4. d) local alignment
5. a) multiple sequence alignment
6. d) all of these
7. d) local alignment
8. a) Rasmol
9. b) BLAST
10. a) Clustal W
Read More

Multiple Choice Questions on Spermatogenesis

1. Correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis
spermatogenesis
a) spermatocytes – spermatids – spermatognia - spermatozoa
b) spermatogonia – spermatids – sprmatocytes - spermatozoa
c) spermatogonia – sprmatocytes – spermatids - spermatozoa
d) spermatocytes –spermatogona- spermatids –spermatozoa

2. In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation involves
a) The formation of oogonia from the spermatocytes through meiosis
b) The formation of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
c) The growth of spematogonia into primary spermatocytes
d) The formation of spermatogonia from gonocytes through mitosis

3. Which part of sperm provides energy for its movement?
a) Head
b) Tail
c) Middle piece
d) Acrosome

4. What happens during spermatogenesis?
a) mitosis
b) meiosis
c) mitosis and meiosis
d) none of the above

5. Number of spermatozoa a single primary spermatocyte ultimately produces in spermatogenesis is
a) 8
b)6
c) 4
d) 2

6. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoa?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 400
d) 800

7. Spermatogenesis is induced by
a) MSH
b) TSH
c) FSH
d) ACTH

8. The lytic enzyme released by sperm is
a) acrosome
b) ligase
c) hyaluronidase
d) None of these

9. Middle piece of the mammalian sperm contains

a) centriole
b) mitochondria
c) nucleus and mitochondria
d) centriole and mitochondria

10. The actual genetic part of a sperm is its
a) head
b) acrosome
c) tail
d) middle piece
Learn more:
Answers
1. c) spermatogonia – sprmatocytes – spermatids - spermatozoa
2. b) the formation of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
3. c) Middle piece
4. c) mitosis and meiosis
5. c) 4
6. b) 200
7. c) FSH
8. c) hyaluronidase
9. b) mitochondria
10. a) head
Read More

Multiple Choice Questions on Epithelial Tissues

1. Lining layer of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles consists of
a) Columnar epithelium
b) Ciliated epithelium
c) Cubical epithelium
d) Squamous epithelium
2. Transitional epithelium is found on
 Transitional epithelium
a) Stomach
b) Lungs
c) Liver
d) Urinary bladder
3. Lining of intestine of man is
a) Brush bordered
b) Ciliated
c) Keratinized
d) Non keratinized
4. Compound tubular gland is
a) Salivary gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Brunner’s gland
d) bulbourethral gland
5. Globet cells of intestinal epithelium are examples of
a) Unicellular glands
b) Columnar epithelium
c) Striated epithelium
d) None of these
6. Epithelium of bronchi is
a) Simple cuboidal
b) Glandular
c) Simple squamous
d) Pseudo stratified ciliated columar
7. Compound tissue is defined as
a) Different types of cells performing one function
b) Different types of cells which are different in structure and function
c) Similar cells at different regions performing many functions
d) Similar types of cells held together by connective tissue.
8. Curved portion of the Henle’s loop of the nephrons are lined by
a) Squamous epithelium
b) Columnar epithelium
c) Ciliated epithelium
d) cuboidal epithelium
9. Endothelium blood vessels is made up of
a) Simple cuboidal epithelium
b) Simple squamous epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium
d) Simple non ciliated columnar epithelium
10. Non keratinized stratified epithelium occurs in
Non keratinized stratified epithelium
a) buccal cavity and anus
b) Vagina and cervix
c) Vagina, cervix and buccal cavity
d) Vagina, cervix, buccal cavity and anus
Learn more:
Answers
1. b) Ciliated epithelium
2. d) Urinary bladder
3. a) Brush bordered
4. c) Brunner’s gland
5. b) Columnar epithelium
6. d) Pseudo stratified ciliated columar
7. a) Different types of cells performing one function
8. a) Squamous epithelium
9. b) Simple squamous epithelium
10. d) vagina, cervix, buccal cavity and anus
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