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1. Which of the following is a common method for disinfecting drinking water?
(A) Pasteurization (B) Filtration (C) Chlorination (D) Fermentation
2. The process of removing or killing all microorganisms in a material or on an object is known
as :
(A) Disinfection (B) Sterilization (C) Sanitation (D) Antisepsis
3. Which type of microscopy enhances the contrast of transparent and colourless objects without
staining?
(A) Bright-field microscopy
(B) Dark-field microscopy
(C) Phase-contrast microscopy
(D) Fluorescence microscopy
4. The resolving power of a light microscope is primarily determined by :
(A) Magnification
(B) Numerical aperture of the objectives lens
(C) The type of light source
(D) The use of stains
5. In continuous culture, which device maintains bacterial cultures in a state of exponential
growth?
(A) Batch culture
(B) Chemostat
(C) Petri dish
(D) Test tube
6. Who first provided evidence that microorganisms can cause
disease in humans?
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
(D) Edward Jenner
7. Which culture method is used to determine the antibiotic
susceptibility of bacteria?
(A) Spread plate method
(B) Streak plate method
(C) Broth dilution method
(D) Disk diffusion method
8. What is the purpose of using a selective medium in
microbiological culture?
(A) To differentiate between organisms based on biochemical
properties
(B) To grow all types of organisms
(C) To support the growth of fastidious organisms
(D) To inhibit the growth of certain organisms while
allowing others to grow
9. Which medium is specifically designed for the isolation
of Gram-positive bacteria, inhibiting
Gram-negative bacteria?
(A) MacConkey agar (B) Mannitol salt agar
(C) Eosin methylene blue agar (D) Blood agar
10. Which type of wastewater treatment involves the use of
microorganisms to decompose
organic matter?
(A) Primary treatment (B) Secondary treatment
(C) Tertiary treatment (D) Quaternary treatment
11. Which of the following is the most effective method to
prevent the spread of many infectious
diseases?
(A) Regular use of antibiotics (B) Quarantine of infected
individuals
(C) Vaccination (D) Handwashing with soap and water
12. Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne
disease?
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Influenza (C) Malaria (D) Hepatitis A
13. Which waterborne disease is caused by a protozoan
parasite and can lead to severe
diarrhoea?
(A) Cholera (B) Typhoid fever (C) Giardiasis (D) Legionellosis
14. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against
a wide range of both Gram-positive and
Gram-negative bacteria?
(A) Isoniazid (B) Rifampin (C) Ciprofloxacin (D) Vancomycin
15. Which of the following is a mechanism by which bacteria
develop resistance to antibiotics?
(A) Increased membrane permeability
(B) Efflux pumps that remove the antibiotic from the cell
(C) Decreased expression of efflux pumps
(D) Reduced production of enzymes that degrade the
antibiotic
16. Which class of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein
synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal
subunit?
(A) Penicillins
(B) Aminoglycosides
(C) Macrolides
(D) Tetracyclines
17. In fluorescence microscopy, the fluorescent dyes used
are excited by which type of light?
(A) Infrared light
(B) Ultraviolet light
(C) Visible light
(D) X-rays
18. The Gram staining technique differentiates bacteria
based on the composition of their :
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Cell wall
(D) Capsule
19. Which class of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein
synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal
subunit?
(A) Penicillins (B) Aminoglycosides (C) Macrolides (D) Tetracyclines
20. Which method is used to increase the contrast of
specimens in TEM?
(A) Coating with heavy metals
(B) Using phase contrast
(C) Staining with fluorescent dyes
(D) Immersion in oil
21. Which of the following is used in cold sterilisation?
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) Infrared ray (D) Gamma rays
22. Toxins are produced by bacteria in :
(A) Lag phase (B) Log phase (C) Stationary phase (D) Phase of decline
23. Organelle involved in bacterial respiration is :
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Pili (C) Mesosome (D) Flagella
24. The enzyme which is absent in anaerobes is :
(A) Oxidase (B) Catalase (C) Urease (D) Nitrate reductase
25. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is called :
(A) Attentuation (B) Extrapolation (C) Exaltation (D) Pathogenicity
26. A population of bacteria derived by binary fission from
a single cell is called :
(A) Strain (B) Clone (C) Species (D) Biotype
27. Organisms which prefer cold environments with optimum
growth temperature of 15°C or
below are :
(A) Mesophilic (B) Thermophilic (C) Psychrophilic (D) Hyperthermophilic
28. Culture Media used for Anaerobic organisms :
(A) Nutrient broth
(B) Robertson’s Cooked meat broth
(C) Selenite F broth
(D) Peptone water
29. Capnophilic bacteria require –––––––––––– for growth and
multiplication.
(A) Nitrous oxide (B) Cadmium (C) Selenium sulphate (D) Carbon dioxide
30. Total energy production from One Glucose molecule is :
(A) 34 ATP (B) 36 ATP (C) 38 ATP (D) 40 ATP
31. T lymphocytes are identified by :
(A) Rosette formation with sheep RBC
(B) Immunoglobulin on its surface
(C) EAC rosette with sheep RBC
(D) Have filamentous projections on its surface
32. The immunoglobulin class is determined by :
(A) Heavy chain isotype
(B) Light chain isotype
(C) Variable portion of Ig molecule
(D) Constant region of
Ig molecule
33. Type of immune response in transplant rejection is :
(A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) Type IV
34. Grafts transplanted between identical twins :
(A) Autograft (B) Homograft (C) Isograft (D) Allograft
35. Which one of the following could function both as
central and peripheral lymphoid organ?
(A) Liver (B) Bone marrow (C) Thymus (D) Lymph nodes
36. Antigen recognition on the surface of the Antigen
presenting cell is by :
(A) T cell recognition Antigen
(B) Fc part of immunoglobulin
(C) Fab part of immunoglobulin
(D) B cell recognition
Antigen
37. When a soluble antigen combines with its antibody in the
presence of electrolytes at suitable
temperature and pH, the reaction is :
(A) Agglutination
(B) Precipitation
(C) Passive agglutination
(D) Reverse passive agglutination
38. Which blood group antibody is IgG class?
(A) Anti A1
(B) Anti B
(C) Anti A2
(D) Anti Rh
39. Which complement fragment is called C3 convertase : in
Complement cascade?
(A) C567
(B) C14b2a
(C) C1qrs
(D) C1a
40. A substance reacts with an antibody but no antibody
formation in its native state is called :
(A) Antigen (B) Allergen
(C) Adjuvant (D) Hapten
41. A method of horizontal gene transfer among prokaryotes
in which DNA is transferred from
one cell to another via a replicating virus :
(A) Transduction
(B) Transformation
(C) Transcription
(D) Conjugation
42. A DNA gene synthesized from an RNA template is :
(A) Complementary DNA
(B) Reverse transcription
(C) Recombinant DNA
(D) Probe DNA
43. A type of electrophoresis which is extensively used for
the quantification and analysis of
proteins?
(A) Immunoelectrophoresis
(B) Gel electrophoresis
(C) 2D electrophoresis
(D) All of the above
44. Auxotrophic mutants are referred to as :
(A) Revertant
(B) Wild type
(C) Nutritional
(D) None of the above
45. Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of
the following?
(A) Reflected radiation and concentration
(B) Energy absorption and reflected radiation
(C) Scattered radiation and concentration
(D) Energy absorption and concentration
46. Choose the false statement concerning vectors in
recombinant DNA technology :
(A) Vectors must contain genes for self-replication
(B) Vectors are small enough to manipulate outside a cell
(C) Vectors contain a recognizable genetic marker
(D) Vectors survive inside cells
47. DNA repair system that is used to remove pyrimidine
dimers formed by UV radiation :
(A) Nucleotide excision Repair
(B) Base excision Repair
(C) Mismatch repair
(D) SOS response
48. –––––––––––– is used as a media for density gradient.
(A) Agarose (B) Ficoll (C) Luria broth (D) Propylene glycol
49. Ethidium bromide is used in gel electrophoresis :
(A) Stain DNA and make it visible under UV light
(B) Color the gel
(C) Enhance the conductivity of the gel
(D) Increase viscosity of the gel
50.In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of :
(A) Net positive charges size (B) Net negative charge (C) Net positive charge (D) Net charge and size
Answers:
|
1-C |
2-B |
3-C |
4-B |
5-B |
6-A |
7-D |
8-D |
9-B |
10-B |
|
11-D |
12-C |
13-C |
14-C |
15-B |
16-C |
17-B |
18-C |
19-C |
20-A |
|
21-D |
22-C |
23-A |
24-B |
25-C |
26-B |
27-C |
28-B |
29-D |
30-C |
|
31-A |
32-A |
33-D |
34-C |
35-B |
36-A |
37-B |
38-D |
39-B |
40-D |
|
41-A |
42-B |
43-C |
44-C |
45-D |
46-A |
47-A |
48-B |
49-A |
50-D |